Hello,

This is my contribution to Citizen's Discussion at Tuesday's City Council meeting:

Good morning,

My understanding is that the measure to ban the sale of recreational marijuana in our city got 49% of the votes.

The measure to allow the sale of recreational marijuana got 55% of votes.

Did some voters vote for both measures?

Why have we not heard some reasonable explanation for this?

How could that happen?

I knew to expect one measure to ban sales and other measure to allow sales but I had to read 300 three times to make sure that I understood it.

It had a vibe on it that said that it did not like marijuana sales.

The first parts described prohibitions on the sale of recreational marijuana.

Only at the end did it mention that this measure actually legalizes the sale of recreational marijuana in our city.

I am not an expert, was it poorly written?

Should authorities have forced them to rewrite it?

Did some voters actually vote to ban sales and to allow sales?

How is that even possible?

At the wedding the groom stated “I do and I do not take thee to be my lawfully wedded wife”.

Is that couple married?

Would their marriage be valid?

This measure passed because voters were tricked, and now some were confused?

Elections cannot have unexplained anomalies.

Did some voters vote to ban and to approve sales?

Does our city attorney's office have a legal opinion on this?

Did anyone else perceive the “anti-sales vibe” on 300, as I did, and if so, where did it come from?

What has our city attorney's office said about the “tricked voters” issue?

I would love to hear their opinion.

Thank you, Carl Strow