Dheeraj, I beg to differ with your views. You have made your analysis very simplistic by dividing students in group 1 or group 2. Let me assure you from personal experience that this was not the case. The formula proposed is fallacious. Why was normalization introduced? To take care of differences in Boards. If that is the case, then the anchor distribution had to be something similar to the Boards. You cannot choose an anchor distribution so different from the base exam and then base normalization on that. Just as you say 60-40 was pre destined, basing the normalization on percentile was also pre destined. But the wise committee that decided the normalization decided to use the percentile of Boards and map it on the JEE mains. This is the flaw. Let us take the degenerate case of only 1 Board.