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The responsible use of alcohol was ended by the 18th Amendment on January 29, 1919. To later be repealed by the 21st Amendment on December 5, 1933 when the state of Utah ratified it. The U.S Government repealed the 18th amendment because they realized that it only caused more harm than good. During this time drinking rates were higher, and crime increased. Moonshiners and bootleggers made millions of dollars and didn’t care if they were breaking the law. It also created a criminal element with it’s manufacture and sale. Today, there is a similar situation taking place around the prohibition of Marijuana, states are gradually starting to end the prohibition of the recreational use of the drug because they realize it will cause less harm and it’s not as bad of a drug as people make it seem.
The government the passed the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) in 1970 and placed Marijuana on the List of Schedule I drugs. This means that it meets the following requirements:
(A) The drug or other substance has high potential for abuse.
(B) The drug or other substance has no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States.
(C) There is a lack of accepted safety for use of the drug or other substance under medical supervision.
If this were true then why is Marinol, a synthetic version of THC, the main active ingredient in Marijuana, only on the List of Schedule III drugs? To be on that list it meets these requirements:
(A) The drug or other substance has a potential for abuse less than the drugs or other substances in schedules I and II.
(B) The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States.
(C) Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence.
This list also includes drugs like Tylenol 3 and Anabolic Steroids. So why is Marijuana illegal because of THC and Marinol is legal even though it's synthetic THC?
End the Prohibition of Marijuana in the United States.
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